Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 15:26
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Man charged in shooting outside Wayzata High School graduation - kare11.com
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Don’t Miss This Rare Chance to See the Milky Way’s Glowing Core - SciTechDaily
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.